Showing posts with label prepg. Show all posts
Showing posts with label prepg. Show all posts

Tuesday, October 30, 2012

Cardio vascular system multiple choice questions

Q 1. You are evaluating a patient with a wide-complex tachycardia. The patient has a history of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. Which medication is the most effective for treating this patient’s tachycardia?

A.Adenosine

B. Digoxin

C.Diltiazem

D.Procainamide

E. Verapamil

ANSWER. D

Q 2. All of the following are electrocardiographic clues supporting the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia except

A.capture beats

B. concordance of QRS complex in all precordial leads

C.fusion beats

D.QRS duration during tachycardia shorter than during sinus rhythm

E. RSR' pattern in V1

ANSWER. E

Q 3. A 68-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction and congestive heart failure is comfortable at rest. However, when walking to his car, he develops dyspnea, fatigue, and sometimes palpitations. He must rest for several minutes before these symptoms resolve. His New York Heart Association classification is which of the following?

A.Class I

B. Class II

C.Class III

D.Class IV

ANSWER. C

Q 4. The husband of a 68-year-old woman with congestive heart failure is concerned because his wife appears to stop breathing for periods of time when she sleeps. He has noticed that she stops breathing for ~10 s and then follows this with a similar period of hyperventilation. This does not wake her from sleep. She does not snore. She feels well rested in the morning but is very dyspneic with even mild activity. What is your next step in management?

A.Electroencephalography

B. Maximize heart failure management

C.Nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) during sleep

D.Obtain a sleep study

E. Prescribe bronchodilators

ANSWER. B

Q 5. You are caring for a patient with heart rate-related angina. With minor elevations in heart rate, the patient has anginal symptoms that impact his quality of life. On review of a 24-h Holter monitor, it appears that the patient has sinus tachycardia at the time of his symptoms. What is the mechanism for this patient’s arrhythmia?

A.Delayed afterdepolarizations

B. Early afterdepolarizations

C.Increased automaticity

D.Reentry pathway

ANSWER. C

Q 6. Where are the most common drivers of atrial fibrillation anatomically located?

A.Left atrial appendage

B. Mitral annulus

C.Pulmonary vein orifice

D.Sinus venosus

E. Sinus node

ANSWER. C

Q 7. Symptoms of atrial fibrillation vary dramatically from patient to patient. A patient with which of the following clinical conditions will likely be the most symptomatic (e.g., short of breath) if they develop atrial fibrillation?

A.Acute alcohol intoxication

B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

C.Hyperthyroidism

D.Hypothermia

E. Postoperative after thoracotomy

ANSWER. B

Q 8. When deciding whether to initiate anticoagulation for a patient with atrial fibrillation, which of the following factors is least important?

A.Age

B. History of diabetes

C.Mitral stenosis

D.Use of antiarrhythmic medications

E. Hypertension

ANSWER. D

Q 9. Which of the following electrocardiographic findings suggests a focal atrial tachycardia as opposed to an automatic atrial tachycardia (e.g., sinus tachycardia)?

A. Initiation of tachycardia with programmed stimulation

B. One P-wave morphology

C.Slow-onset and termination phase

D.Slowing of the rate with adenosine infusion

ANSWER. A

Q 10. You are seeing a return patient in clinic. The patient is a 76-year-old man with a history of hypertension, remote cerebrovascular accident, diet-controlled diabetes, and congestive heart failure with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (ejection fraction = 30%). The patient reports no new complaints and feels well. On physical examination, you palpate an irregular pulse, and an electrocardiogram verifies atrial fibrillation. The patient does not have a history of atrial fibrillation. You and the patient are interested in a trial of direct current cardioversion (DCCV). What is the appropriate management of anticoagulation for this patient?

A.Initiate warfarin (with goal INR 2.0–3.0) following DCCV only if cardioversion is unsuccessful.

B. Give full-dose aspirin (325 mg daily) 3 weeks prior to DCCV, perform transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) and DCCV (if not contraindicated), then discontinue aspirin if DCCV is successful.

C.Initiate IV heparin and warfarin, perform transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) and DCCV (if not contraindicated), then discontinue warfarin if DCCV is successful.

D.Initiate IV heparin, perform TEE and DCCV (if not contraindicated), then continue warfarin for at least 1 month.

ANSWER. D

Various double signs

Double bleb sign : Appearance of amnion and yolk sac at 5-6 weeks. Embryo lies between amnion and yolk sac

Double bubble sign : Sign of duodenal atresia and other forms of duodenal obstruction.

Double decidua sign : Sign of early normal intrauterine gestation.

Double density sign (cardiac) : Sign of left atrial enlargement when right side of the left atrium pushes into the adjacent lung.

Double density sign (Nucs) : Pattern of uptake that may be seen on bone scans in patients with osteoid osteomas.

Double duct sign : Simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts that is generally caused by a tumor in the pancreatic head.

Double PCL sign : MRI sign of a bucket-handle meniscal tear.

Double track sign : :Appearance of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis that may be seen on upper GI series.

Monday, October 29, 2012

Cardiovascular system multiple choice questions 1

Q 1. Which of the following conditions is not associated with sinus bradycardia?

A.Brucellosis

B. Leptospirosis

C.Hypothyroidism

D.Advanced liver disease

E. Typhoid fever

ANSWER. B

Q 2. All of the following are common consequences of congenital heart disease in the adult except

A.Eisenmenger syndrome

B. erythrocytosis

C.infective endocarditis

D.pulmonary hypertension

E. stroke

ANSWER. E

Q 3. Acute hyperkalemia is associated with which of the following electrocardiographic changes?

A.QRS widening

B. Prolongation of the ST segment

C.A decrease in the PR interval

D.Prominent U waves

E. T-wave flattening

ANSWER. A

Q 4. All of the following clinical findings are consistent with severe mitral stenosis except

A.atrial fibrillation

B. opening snap late after S2

C.pulmonary vascular congestion

D.pulsatile liver

E. right-ventricular heave

ANSWER. B

Q 5. A 37-year-old male with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome develops a broad-complex irregular tachycardia at a rate of 200 beats per minute. He appears comfortable and has little hemodynamic impairment. Useful treatment at this point might include

A.Digoxin

B. Amiodarone

C.Propranolol

D.Verapamil

E. Direct-current cardioversion

ANSWER. E

Q 6. In African Americans with New York Heart Association class II heart failure, which of the following drug combinations should be added to an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor and beta blocker?

A.Hydralazine/angiotensin receptor blockers

B. Hydrazaline/digoxin

C.Isosorbide dinitrate/angiotensin receptor blockers

D.Isosorbide dinitrate/digoxin

E. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine

ANSWER. E

Q 7. All of the following medications have been shown to worsen heart failure in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction except

A.angiotensin receptor blockers

B. calcium channel antagonists

C.nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

D.sotalol

E. thiazolidinediones

ANSWER. A

Q 8. Which of the following is true regarding dose escalation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers in patients newly diagnosed with congestive heart failure?

A.ACE inhibitors should be escalated on a daily basis to maximal tolerated doses, while beta blockers should be gently increased in dose over weeks, as tolerated.

B. Beta blockers should be escalated on a daily basis to maximal tolerated doses, while ACE inhibitors should be gently increased in dose over weeks, as tolerated.

C.Both should be escalated rapidly to maximally tolerated doses.

D.Both should be escalated slowly to maximally tolerated doses.

E. Both should be initiated at full doses

ANSWER. A

Q 9. All of the following findings on echocardiographic assessment of patients with congestive heart failure with preserved ejection fraction are relevant except

A.atrial fibrillation

B. left atrial dilatation

C.left ventricular wall thickness

D.left ventricular diastolic filling as measured by tissue Doppler

E. systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve

ANSWER. E

Q 10. A 28-year-old man with long-standing cardiomyopathy presents with worsening dyspnea. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg, heat rate of 112 beats/min, elevated jugular venous pressure, positive hepatojugular reflex, quiet S1/S2, apical S3, no pulmonary rales, and 3+ lower extremity edema. Chest radiograph shows no pulmonary edema and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What information does the patient’s pulmonary examination give you in regards to his likely pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A.It is likely to be elevated.

B. It is likely to be normal.

C.It is likely to be decreased.

D.No information

ANSWER. D

Pathology multiple choice questions 1

Q 1. Spontaneous maturation of tumour cells and a more benign clinical course potential is occasionally observed in which of the following neoplasms of childhood?

a) Medullo blastoma

b) Osteogenic sarcoma

c) Nephroblastoma

d) Neuroblastoma

e) Retinoblastoma

ANSWER. D

Q 2. The most common site of carcinoma of the colon is

a) Cecum

b) Ascending colon

c) Transverse colon

d) Splenic flexure

e) recto sigmoid

ANSWER. E

Q 3. The most characterisitc feature of granulation tissue is the

a) Resemblance to a granuloma

b) Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries

c) Character of the exudate

d) Granular scar that results

e) Presence of monocytes and fibroblasts

ANSWER. B

Q 4. Silicosis is most often complicated by

a) Asthma

b) Carcinoma of lung

c) Mesothelioma

d) Tuberculosis

e) bronchi alveolar carcinoma

ANSWER C

Q 5. Chronic salpingitis is considered to be a significant condition predisposing to

a) Ectopic pregnancy

b) Carcinoma of the cervix

c) Leiomyomata

d) Cystic hyperplasia of the endometrium

e) Choriocarcinoma

ÀNSWER. C

Q 6. Petechiae on pleural and pericardial surfaces and squames in alveoli of an autopsied neonatal infant suggest

a) A transplacentally acquired viral infection

b) Intrauterine anoxia

c) A met plastic epithelial response to oxygen therapy

d) A marked decrease in pulmonary surfactant

e) An inherent clotting defect

ANSWER. B

Q 7. Which of the following statements about alcoholic liver disease is correct?

a) It is rarely associated with fatty change

b) It invariably develops in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol for more than three months

c) It produces extensive hepatic fibrosis rather than true cirrhosis

d) Mallory bodies and Europhilic infiltrates are morphologic features of the early stages of the disease

e) It is not directly related to toxic effects of alcohol but rather to nutritional disturbances

ANSWER. D

Q 8. All of the following are characterized by geanulomatious inflammation except

a) Sarcoidosis

b) Tuberculosis

c) Histoplasmosis

d) Diphtheria

e) Leprosy

ANSWER. D

Q 9. The principle chemical mediator of enhanced vessel permeability from Europhiles is

a) A cationic protein

b) An acid phosphatase

c) Beta glucuronidase

d) Cholesteryl oleate

e) A mucopolysaccharide

ANSWER. A

Pharmacology multiple choice questions

Q 1. Which of the following is a veterinary anesthetic with hallucinogenic effects?

a) Cannabis

b) Cocaine

c) Phencyclidine

d) Mescaline

e) MPTP (methylphenyltetrahydropyridine)

ANSWER D

Q 2. Each of the following is an effective antidepressant drug except

a) Lithium

b) Imip ramine

c) Phenelzine

d) Desipramine

e) Chlorpromazine

ANSWER E

Q 3. Methadone is useful in the treatment of heroin dependence because it

a) contains 6-monoacetylmorphine

b) is also semi-synthetic

c) doesn't cross the blood-brain barrier

d) acts on the opioid receptor

e) acts on the glutamate receptor

ANSWER. D

Q 4. Which of the following causes muscle paralysis by sustained depolarisation of the post junctional membrane?

a) Pancuronium

b) Atrac curium

c) Both

d) Neither

ANSWER. D

Q 5. Which of the following drugs has a short elimination half life?

a) Diazepam

b) Oxazepam

c) Both

d) Neither

ANSWER. B

Q 6. Side effects of which of the following may include salivation and sweating?

a) Physostigmine

b) Pyridostigmine

c) Both

d) Neither

ANSWER C

Q 7. The principle route for diazepam glucuronidation is a

a) Mitochondrial enzyme

b) Microsomal enzyme

c) Plasma enzyme

d) Cytosolic enzyme

e) None of the above

ANSWER. B

Q 8. Which of the following is the most serious and dose limiting adverse effect of morphine?

a) Extreme sedation

b) Increased intracranial pressure

c) Decreased respiration

d) Decreased myocardial conductivity

e) Decreased blood pressure

ANSWER. C

Q 9. The amount that a receptor agonist affects the activity of its target receptor is called it

a) functionality

b) interactivity

c) cellularity

d) activity

e) efficacy

ANSWER. E

Sunday, October 28, 2012

Nutrition mcqs

Q1 A 19-year-old woman with anorexia nervosa undergoes surgery for acute appendicitis. The postoperative course is complicated by acute respiratory distress syndrome, and she remains intubated for 10 days. She develops wound dehiscence on postoperative day 10. Laboratory data show a white blood cell count of 4000/ µL, hematocrit 35%, albumin 2.1 g/dL, total protein 5.8 g/dL, transferrin 54 mg/dL, and iron-binding capacity 88 mg/dL. You are considering initiating nutritional therapy on hospital day 11. Which of the following is true regarding the etiology and treatment of malnutrition in this patient? A.She has marasmus, and nutritional support should be started slowly. B. She has kwashiorkor, and nutritional support should be aggressive. C.She has marasmic kwashiorkor, kwashiorkor predominant, and nutritional support should be aggressive. D.She has marasmic kwashiorkor, marasmus predominant, and nutritional support should be slow

Ans is c

Q2 You are seeing a patient in follow-up 2 weeks after hospitalization. The patient is recovering from nosocomial pneumonia due to a resistant Pseudomonas spp. His hospital course was complicated by a deep venous thrombosis. The patient is currently on IV piperacillin/ tazobactam and tobramycin via a tunneled catheter, warfarin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol. Laboratory data this morning show an INR of 8.2. At hospital discharge his INR was stable at 2.5. He has no history of liver disease. What is the most likely cause of the elevated INR?

A.The patient has inadvertently overdosed.

B. The patient has developed a recurrent deep venous thrombosis, which has affected the laboratory data.

C.The patient is deficient in vitamin K and needs supplementation.

D.The warfarin prescription was written incorrectly at the time of discharge.

Ans is c

Q 3 A 51-year-old alcoholic man is admitted to the hospital for upper gastrointestinal bleeding. From further history and physical examination, it becomes apparent that his bleeding is from gingival membranes. He is intoxicated and complains of fatigue. Reviewing his chart you f ind that he had a hemarthrosis evacuated 6 months ago and has been lost to follow-up since then. He takes no medications. Laboratory data show platelets of 250,000, INR of 0.9. He has a diffuse hemorrhagic eruption on his legs . What is the recommended treatment for this patient’s underlying disorder?

A.Folate

B. Niacin

C.Thiamine

D.Vitamin C

E. Vitamin K

Ans is D

Q 4 While working in the intensive care unit, you admit a 57-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis and oliguric renal failure. Respiratory rate is 26 breaths/min, heart rate is 125 beats/min, and temperature is 37.2°C. Physical examination shows marked abdominal tenderness with normoactive bowel sounds. A CT scan shows an inflamed pancreas without hemorrhage. You calculate her APACHE-I score to be 28. When deciding on when to initiate nutritional replacement in this patient, which of the following statements is true?

A.Bowel rest is the cornerstone of treatment for acute pancreatitis.

B. Administering parenteral nutrition within 24 h will decrease the risk of infection and mortality.

C.Enteral feeding supports gut function by secretion of gastrointestinal hormones that stimulate gut trophic activity.

D.In severe systemic response to inflammation, feeding can be withheld initially because the patient is likely to have adequate, spontaneous oral intake in the first 7 days

Ans is C

Q 5 The resting energy expenditure is a rough estimate of total caloric needs in a state of energy balance. Of these two patients with stable weights, which person has the highest resting energy expenditure (REE): Patient A, a 40-year-old man who weighs 90 kg and is sedentary, or Patient B, a 40year-old man who weighs 70 kg and is very active?

A.40-year-old man who weighs 90 kg and is sedentary

B. 40-year-old man who weighs 70 kg and is very active

C.REE is the same

D.Not enough information given to calculate the REE

Ans is B

Q 6 All of the following clinical features are common in patients with anorexia nervosa except

A.Avoid food-related occupations

B. Distorted body image

C.Engage in binge eating

D.Exercise extensively

E. Rarely complain of hunger

F. Socially withdrawn

Ans is A

Q 7 You diagnose anorexia nervosa in one of your new clinic patients. When coordinating a treatment program with the psychiatrist, what characteristics should prompt consideration for inpatient treatment instead of scheduling an outpatient assessment?

A.Amenorrhea

B. Exaggeration of food intake

C.Irrational fear of gaining weight

D.Purging behavior

E. Weight <75% of expected body weight

Ans is E

Q 8 It is hospital day 16 for a 49-year-old homeless patient who is recovering from alcohol withdrawal and delirium tremens. She spent the first 9 days of this hospitalization in the intensive care unit but is now awake, alert, and conversant. She has a healing decubitus ulcer, and her body mass index is 19 kg/m2. Laboratory data show an albumin of 2.9 g/dL and a prothrombin time of 18 s (normal range). Is this patient malnourished?

A.Cannot be determined, need more information.

B. No. Given her heavy alcohol intake, her prothrombin time is expected to be delayed.

C.No. She has a low resting energy expenditure and her intact mental state argues against malnutrition.

D.Yes, this degree of hypoalbuminemia is uncommon in cirrhosis and is likely due to malnutrition

Ans is A

Q 9 A 42-year-old male patient wants your opinion about vitamin E supplements. He has read that taking high doses of vitamin E can improve his sexual performance and slow the aging process. He is not vitamin E deficient. You explain to him that these claims are not based on good evidence. What other potential side effect should he be concerned about?

A.Deep venous thrombosis

B. Hemorrhage

C. Night blindness

D.Peripheral neuropathy

E. Retinopathy

Ans is B

Q 10 Doing rounds in the oncology center, you are see a patient with carcinoid syndrome. Due to the increased conversion of tryptophan to serotonin, this patient has developed niacin deficiency. All of the following are components of the pellagra syndrome except

A.dermatitis

B. dementia

C.diarrhea

D.dyslipidemia

E. glossitis

Ans is D